| Infallibly, as defined 
by the First Vatican Council, means... "...We, 
adhering faithfully to the tradition received from the beginning of the 
Christian faith, to the glory of God, our Savior, the elevation of the Catholic 
religion and the salvation of Christian peoples, with the approbation of the 
sacred Council, teach and explain that the dogma has been divinely revealed: 
that the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks ex cathedra, that is, when carrying out 
the office of pastor and teacher of all Christians, by virtue of his supreme 
apostolic authority he defines a doctrine regarding faith or morals to be held 
by the universal Church, through the divine assistance promised him in blessed 
Peter, possesses that infallibility with which the divine Redeemer willed that 
His Church be endowed for defining doctrine regarding faith and morals; and so 
such definitions of the Roman Pontiff of themselves, and not from the consensus 
of the Church, are irreformable. But if anyone presumes to contradict 
this definition of Ours, which may God forbid: let him be anathema." (Vatican 
Council I, 1870 A.D., emphasis added) According to the 
above, papal infallibility involves "doctrine regarding faith or morals", which 
would not seem to include investigations into people's lives.   As explained in the 
Baltimore Catechism... Q. What do you 
mean by the infallibility of the Church?  A. By the 
infallibility of the Church I mean that the Church cannot err when it teaches a 
doctrine of faith or morals.  Q. What do we 
mean by a "doctrine of faith or morals"?  A. By a 
doctrine of faith or morals we mean the revealed teaching that refers to 
whatever we must believe and do in order to be saved. How could it 
be argued that a canonization is a "doctrine of faith or morals" that is 
"taught"? How can a canonization be considered a "revealed teaching that refers 
to whatever we must believe and do in order to be saved"? Isn't canonization 
more of a 'judgment call' regarding someone's life/death confirmed by miracles 
(miracles that the Church cannot infallibly rule on) than a 'revealed teaching'? Although 
canonizations may have long been thought to be infallible, this has never been a 
defined dogma of the faith. In fact, infallibility of canonizations has been 
questioned in recent times. For a guest article touching on this topic, try
here [see (roughly) the second half of the article under "So, where does 
this leave us? Are canonizations infallible?..."] 
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