Who Jesus Is / The Divinity of Christ

Question

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Do You Wonder Who Jesus Is?

Consider:

* As is clear from Sacred Scripture, Jesus Christ is true God and true Man. He is the second person of the Blessed Trinity. Christ the Lord - also called Emmanuel and the Word - took on human flesh, being born of the Virgin Mary. He is the Messiah promised since the fall of man in the Garden of Eden (cf. Gen. 3:15). In order to atone for the sins of man, He was crucified, willingly died, and was buried. On the third day, He rose from the dead. He ascended into Heaven and sits at the right hand of God the Father. He will come again to judge the living and the dead. Before His death, He performed numerous miracles, taught heavenly doctrine, and commissioned certain men to act in His place (men whom He equipped with the necessary power). He also founded His Church - the Catholic Church - (called his "body") on St. Peter in order to bring men to salvation, and He continues to act as its invisible head. He remains physically present in Catholic churches throughout the world in the Holy Eucharist under the appearance of bread and wine.

* For additional information on Jesus, consider the following links:

Catholic Basics Section

Who Jesus Is

Do You Wonder If (or Doubt That) Jesus Is Really God?

Consider:

* Scripture says that Jesus is "Emmanuel", meaning "God is with us" (see Mt. 1:23)

* Scripture says that the Word (that is, Jesus) was God (see Jn. 1:1)

* Jesus said that if you knew Him, you would know His Father (that is, God) also (see Jn. 8:19)

* Jesus said "I AM" (Jn. 8:58, Jn. 18:5, Jn. 18:8), a clear reference to God (see Ex. 3:14)

* Jesus said that "The Father and I are one" (Jn. 10:30)

* Jesus said that "The Father is in me and I am in the Father" (Jn. 10:38)

* Jesus says that "whoever sees me sees the one who sent me" (Jn. 12:45)

* Jesus says that whoever has seen Him has seen the Father (Jn. 14:8-12)

* The Apostle St. Thomas proclaims: "My Lord and my God!" and is not rebuked by Jesus (Jn. 20:28)

* Scripture says that in Jesus "dwells the whole fullness of the deity bodily" (Col. 2:9)

* Christ instructs the Apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit (Mt. 28:19). This would not make sense unless the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are God.

"O Lord our God, we believe in You, Father and Son and Holy Spirit. For the Truth would not say: 'Go, baptize all nations in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,' unless You were a Trinity. Nor would You command us, O Lord God, to be baptized in the name of anyone who is not the Lord God." (St. Augustine, Doctor of the Church, c. 407 A.D.)

"The Spirit, then being established in us, the Son and the Father come; and they make their dwelling in us. For the Trinity is indivisible, and its Godhead is one; and there is one God over all and through all and in all. This is the faith of the Catholic Church; for on the Trinity the Lord founded it and rooted it, when He said to His disciples, 'Go out and instruct every people, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.' But if the Spirit were a creature, He would not have joined Himself with the Father, lest the Trinity be dissimilar within Itself, lest It have united in Itself anything strange or foreign. Indeed, what could be lacking in God, that He should assume any foreign substance, and be glorified with it? Inconceivable!" (St. Athanasius, Doctor of the Church, 4th century A.D.)

* Christ demonstrated His divine power countless times in the ability to forgive sin and through His miracles.

"The miracles which Christ worked were a sufficient proof of His Godhead in three respects. First, as to the very nature of the works, which surpassed the entire capability of created power, and therefore could not be done save by Divine power. For this reason the blind man, after his sight had been restored, said (John 9:32,33): 'From the beginning of the world it has not been heard, that any man hath opened the eyes of one born blind. Unless this man were of God, he could not do anything.' Secondly, as to the way in which He worked miracles - namely, because He worked miracles as though of His own power, and not by praying, as others do. Wherefore it is written (Luke 6:19) that 'virtue went out from Him and healed all.' Whereby it is proved, as Cyril says (Commentarium in Lucam) that 'He did not receive power from another, but, being God by nature, He showed His own power over the sick. And this is how He worked countless miracles.' Hence on Matthew 8:16: 'He cast out spirits with His word, and all that were sick He healed,' Chrysostom says: 'Mark how great a multitude of persons healed, the Evangelists pass quickly over, not mentioning one by one... but in one word traversing an unspeakable sea of miracles.' And thus it was shown that His power was co-equal with that of God the Father, according to John 5:19: 'What things soever' the Father 'doth, these the Son doth also in like manner'; and, again (John 5:21): 'As the Father raiseth up the dead and giveth life, so the Son also giveth life to whom He will.' Thirdly, from the very fact that He taught that He was God; for unless this were true it would not be confirmed by miracles worked by Divine power. Hence it was said (Mark 1:27): 'What is this new doctrine? For with power He commandeth the unclean spirits, and they obey Him.'" (St. Thomas Aquinas, Doctor of the Church and "greatest theologian in the history of the Church")

* Christ's death was sought for the very reason that He "made Himself equal to God" (cf. Jn. 5:18, Mt. 26:63-66, Jn. 19:7).

* Christ could not be our Savior if He was not God. "Neither could a portion of creation, while itself in need of salvation, become creation's salvation... A man would not have been deified if joined to a creature, nor if the Son were not true God; neither would a man have been brought into the Father's presence if He had not been the Father's natural and true Word who had put on a body. Since we could have had nothing in common with what is foreign, we would not have been delivered from sin and from the curse if that which the Word put on had not been natural human flesh; so also, the man would not have been deified if the Word which became flesh and not been by nature from the Father and true and proper to Him." (St. Athanasius, Doctor of the Church, 4th century A.D.)

* God the Father in Heaven testified that Christ is His Son. For example, consider the events of the Transfiguration where God said "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased; listen to him" (Mt. 17:5).

Concluding Quotation...

"Christ says, 'If anyone sees Me, he sees the Father,' If He were of another essence He would not say this. But if I may make use of an argument of the crasser sort, no one who is ignorant of gold is able to discover the essence of gold in silver. For the nature of one thing is not manifested in another." (St. John Chrysostom, Doctor of the Church, c. 391 A.D.)

How Can Jesus be God Since Jesus Said the Father is Greater Than He Is and Since Christ Admitted to Not Knowing Something? What About the Other Indications That Christ Was Human or That He Had a Separate Will Than God?

Consider:

* Since Jesus took on our human nature while remaining God, He is rightly said to have two natures - one divine and one human. Speaking from the perspective of His divine nature, Christ was able to say that "The Father and I are one" (Jn. 10:30). Speaking from the perspective of His human nature, Christ said that "the Father is greater than I" (Jn. 14:28). Even though the statements appear contradictory, each is equally true. Christ clearly referred to his divine nature on various occasions (see question above) in the Bible, and Scripture also clearly shows his human nature. "Jesus has two kinds of knowledge - divine and human - some things he answered with one, some things in another." Why is it that some non-Catholic 'Christian' sects see apparently contradictory statements in Scripture - all of which is written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit - and simply choose one set of statements over the other? Should one not attempt to see how all statements are equally true? Why do some sects attempt to make a liar out of Holy Scripture?

* When Christ said that he didn't know the day or the hour (see Mk. 13:32), it should be noted that He is not saying that He doesn't know absolutely, but only in His human nature. In His human nature, it is unknown to Him, but in His divine nature, He knows the day that He is to return. It is clear from Scripture that Christ knows all things about that day and the time which will proceed it, therefore he must know when this will occur. And, clearly, a diversity of knowledge in the undivided Trinity makes no sense. It has also been explained that Christ's manner of speech may be taken to mean not that He is ignorant, but that it is "not expedient" to tell us this since we would not then be watchful, which is the entire point of the passage (see Mk. 13:32-37). One may also have to allow for a particular manner of speaking. For example, do you suppose that the omnipotent God really didn't know where Adam was after the fall because He inquired where Adam was (see Gen. 3:9)? Some additional relevant quotations appear below:

"How indeed could he know so accurately those things which are to proceed that hour and which are to take place at the end, but be ignorant of the hour itself? This thing would be like a riddle, as if one were to say that he knows accurately everything that is in front of a wall, but does not know the wall itself; or that he knows well the end of the day but knows not the beginning of the night, whereas knowledge of the one necessarily brings with it knowledge of the other. If, then, we may proceed from the example of what is seen to what is known, is it not perfectly plain to everyone that He does know as God, but says that, as man, he knows not?" (St. Gregory of Nazianz, Doctor of the Church, c. 380 A.D.)

"For how could anyone who confesses that the Wisdom Itself of God is incarnate say that there is anything of which the Wisdom of God is ignorant? Is it written? 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was, in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him.' If all things, then without a doubt even the day and hour of judgement. Who, then, is so foolish as to presume to say that the Word of the Father made that of which He was ignorant? It is also written, 'Jesus, knowing that the Father had given Him all things into His hands.' If all things, certainly the day of judgment and the hour. Who, then, is so stupid as to say that the Son received into His hands what He did not know?" (Pope St. Gregory I the Great, Doctor of the Church, c. 600 A.D.)

"Certainly, then, it is plain that as the Word He knows also the hour and the end of all things, although as man He is ignorant of it; for ignorance is proper to man, and especially in these matters. This, moreover, pertains to the Savior's love of man; for, inasmuch as He was made man, He is not ashamed, because of the ignorant flesh, to say, 'I do not know,' - so that He may demonstrate that, although as God He knows, according to the flesh He is ignorant. This, then, is why He did not say, 'nor does the Son of God know': lest the Godhead appear to be ignorant; but simply, 'nor the Son': so that the ignorance may be of the Son as born of man." (St. Athanasius, Doctor of the Church, 4th century A.D.)

"(But) concerning that which has been written: That neither the Son, nor the angels know the day and the hour [cf. Mark 13:32], indeed, your holiness has perceived rightly, that since it most certainly should be referred not to the same son according to that which is the head, but according to his body which we are... He [Augustine] also says...that this can be understood of the same son, because omnipotent God sometimes speaks in a human way, as he said to Abraham: Now I know that thou fearest God [Gen. 22:12], not because God then knew that He was feared, but because at that time He caused Abraham to know that he feared God. For, just as we say a day is happy not because the day itself is happy, but because it makes us happy, so the omnipotent Son says He does not know the day which He causes not to be known, not because He himself is ignorant of it, but because He does not permit it to be known at all. Thus also the Father alone is said to know, because the Son (being) consubstantial with Him, on account of His nature, by which He is above the angels, has knowledge of that, of which the angels are unaware. Thus, also, this can be the more precisely understood because the Only-begotten having been incarnate, and made perfect man for us, in His human nature indeed did know the day and the hour of judgment, but nevertheless He did not know this from His human nature." (Pope St. Gregory the Great, Doctor of the Church, 600 A.D.)

* The fact that Scripture indicates that Christ is fully human does not mean that Christ is not also fully divine. In fact, Scripture even says that "in him dwells the whole fullness of the deity bodily" (Col. 2:9). Therefore, it is to be expected that Scripture sometimes refers to His divinity, and sometimes to his humanity. For example, we see that Christ performed great miracles, including raising people from the dead, yet he shed tears over the death of his friend. We see that Christ was troubled by his upcoming trials, yet we know he could have escaped them if He wished to do so. Since Christ is both God and Man, He can simultaneously be troubled as a Man, but not troubled in His divinity. "In writing of the human attributes of the Word, one must know also what concerns His divinity... When, therefore, he speaks of His weeping, he knows that the Lord, having become man, exhibited His humanity by His weeping, while as God He raised Lazarus and he knows that the Lord hungered and thirsted physically, while divinely He fed five thousand with five loaves" (St. Athanasius, Doctor of the Church, c. 350 A.D.)

* The fact that Christ referred to His will independently of His Father's will (e.g. Lk. 22:42, Jn. 5:30) does not prove that Christ is not God. Rather, in such passages, Christ is speaking of His human will. Certainly, the divine will is always one and the same, with no division whatsoever. Some additional relevant quotations appear below:

"If then there is but one will of the Father and Son, how is it that He says, 'Only not as I will, but as You will'? Were this saying to be attributed to the Divinity it would result in a certain contradiction and it would give birth to numerous absurdities. But if it is attributed to the flesh the words will have such consistency that no complaint will be possible." (St. John Chrysostom, Doctor of the Church, c. 387 A.D.)

"The Lord says, 'The Father and I are one;' and again, it is written of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, 'And the three are one.' Does anyone believe that in the Church this unity which proceeds from the divine stability and which is welded together after the heavenly patterns, can be divided, and can be separated by parting asunder of opposing wills? Whoever holds not fast to this unity holds not to the law of God; neither does he keep faith with the Father and the Son, nor does he have life and salvation. This sacrament of unity, this bond of an inseparably cohering harmony, is indicated in the Gospel when the tunic of the Lord Jesus Christ is in no way divided nor cut apart." (St. Cyprian of Carthage, c. 251 A.D.)

"And when [our Lord Christ] says, 'Father, if it be possible, let this chalice pass from Me; yet, not My will be done, but Yours;' and 'the spirit is ready, but the flesh is weak,' He gives evidence therein of two wills, the one human, which is of the flesh, and the other divine, which is of God. That which is human, because of the weakness of the flesh, shrinks from suffering. That, however, which is divine is ready. Then too, Peter, hearing about the passion says, 'Cheer up, Lord;' but the Lord, chiding him, says 'Get behind Me, Satan; you are a scandal to Me, because you are mindful not of the things of God but of the things of men.' This, too, then is to be understood in the same way: for, having been made in the likeness of men, as a man He shrinks from suffering; but being God and, in according with the divine substance, really not being subject to suffering, He readily accepts suffering and death." (St. Athanasius, Doctor of the Church, 4th century A.D.)

* The fact that Christ said that no one has ever seen God (Jn.1:18, 1 Jn.4:12) does not mean that Christ is not God, but rather refers to a "perfect comprehension" of God. This may be made more clear by the fact that Christ also says that whoever sees Him sees the Father (cf. Jn. 12:45, Jn. 14:8-12). "Whenever God appears not as He is, but shows Himself in such a way as to enable Himself to be seen, measuring Himself to the weak vision of those seeing Him, that display of Himself is an accommodation... Why does John say, 'No one has ever seen God'? So that you might learn that he is speaking about the perfect comprehension of God and about the precise knowledge of Him." (St. John Chrysostom, Doctor of the Church, c. 386 A.D.)